Daymare17 Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 The source of all human unhappiness is the disproportion between intents and results. This thought just sort of popped into my mind. To me it seems like an accurate law. However I'm not educated in psychology, nor do I have the necessary empirical evidence at hand to prove it/disprove it. That's why I'm posting it here for you guys to consider it. Perhaps we can have a good discussion on it too. Thanks, Rune
mezarashi Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 Oooh, a thread on philosophy. I'd like to stick to the Buddhist ways and say, the source of all human unhappiness (aka. suffering) is caused by ignorance. We do not understand our very fundamental nature, our reason for existence, or anything. We are but ignorant and lost fools who roam the crust of some random planet thinking we can play god. Because of the fact that we know nothing, we lack knowledge, we create superficial needs and wants, and when those needs and wants are not fulfilled, we suffer. Even when they are fulfilled, we suffer, but we suffer to a much lesser extent. And that's how I'd like to view things. Of course, as another human who inhabits this Earth, I am part of this vicious cycle. Even though I know it, I must admit, I'm addicted to it. It's sad to know that I would prefer experiencing "some happiness" in exchange for the suffering I will get afterwards.
Daymare17 Posted March 27, 2005 Author Posted March 27, 2005 Well, what I really wanted to know was whether this has already been "discovered" (or refuted) by some scientist or whether it's my own idea.
Vladimir Posted March 27, 2005 Posted March 27, 2005 Happiness can only be achieved through self sufficiancy. We are not wandering some random planet, we live here on earth. You cannot simply say we arehere, we survived through persecution, suffering at a disadvantage to higher aniamls,and emerged as teh dominante race. The entire purpose fo science is to understand our existence, our fundamental nature. I think you'll find the ignorant are the happiest amongst us. Does the christian bible not teach ignorance?
Mokele Posted March 27, 2005 Posted March 27, 2005 The source of all human unhappiness is the disproportion between intents and results. It can be easily disproven. Here, give me your hand and a hammer. The trouble is the "all" in your statement. Lots of other things can cause unhappiness. That doesn't mean your cause isn't also one of them, or a singificant one (since it seems to generalize well to many situations), just that you should be careful of using the word "all" in such a way. After all, clinical depression is unhapiness cause by chemicals, nothing more. Mokele
mustang292 Posted March 27, 2005 Posted March 27, 2005 Vladimir : Happiness can only be achieved through self sufficiancy. I do not agree with this statement. When I was a youngster I was always happy (dependant). Now, I am 31 Self Sufficient and miserable.
Vladimir Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 Are you truly self sufficiant? Or do you work for money? the two are different.
mustang292 Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 Vladimir : Are you truly self sufficiant? Or do you work for money? the two are different. SUFFICIENT I was TRULY self sufficient for the last year and a half. I needed nothing, plenty of money. I recently started a new job out of pure boredom. Being Self Sufficient doesn't make you happy. I acchieved every goal I had for myself. Then after achieving those goals I realized I was still not happy. Happiness is in the eyes of the beholder. Chidren are happy. Are they Self Sufficient? No, They are however Ignorant (That part I agree with you) It's just that your statement of only acheiving happiness by being Self-Sufficient is way off the mark.
Flareon Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 "Happiness is not getting what you want, but wanting what you get." I believe happiness has little to do with external factors, rather, it is something we actively make for ourselves. All I need to feel happy (and I mean REALLY happy) is to lie in my husbands arms and listen to his heartbeat. Is he a perfect man who provides me with everything my heart desires? No. But I CHOOSE to be happy with him. I can easily focus on his flaws, my stressful life, the inevitability of death, and that the moment of happiness at hand is a fleeting moment and will not last. But I choose not to think about that, I choose to enjoy the moment for what it is. So, while I somewhat agree that ignorance can lead to bliss, it's only a small part of the picture. The main part is self-empowerment, the ability and strength to choose what you want. So in regards to the original post, I would say it depends not only on what the intents are, but how you approach it.
Flareon Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 I'd like to stick to the Buddhist ways and say, the source of all human unhappiness (aka. suffering) is caused by ignorance. ( I may be wrong, but I thought the root of suffering was 'desire.' Or are there more than one?
Vladimir Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 If you think/thought money would make you happy then your deluding yourself, what use is money if it cannot buy you the things you want? The only way to make money, i.e a profit, is to exploit somebody else. Your boss exploits you, the product/service you provide for he/she is worth far more than what he/she pays you; so if all of your money (something you asscosiate with being self sufficant? relying on other people?!) is in truth merely a product of your own exploitation, surely that would result in unhappiness.
Vladimir Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 Yes i thought that was teh buddist philosophy, suffering is desire. Possibly a complex chemical reaction from the site smell and touch of somebody you asscoisiate with happiness, is not a consious desiscion, though ofcourse you can attempt to override these emotions, ie your stressful life, teh inevitableity of death and so forth, that is the consious part.
Void Posted March 28, 2005 Posted March 28, 2005 I am more interested in the "unifying" part of your post, unifying in what sense?
Daymare17 Posted March 29, 2005 Author Posted March 29, 2005 It can be easily disproven. Here, give me your hand and a hammer. Hmm, true. I could replace it with "emotional unhappiness", though. The trouble is the "all" in your statement. Lots of other things can cause unhappiness. That doesn't mean your cause isn't also one of them, or a singificant one (since it seems to generalize well to many situations), just that you should be careful of using the word "all" in such a way. Well, I'm pretty quick to generalize But, do you have any other reasons for unhappiness, except for physiological pain, that arent simply manifestations of my general law (or rather, theory)? After all, clinical depression is unhapiness cause by chemicals, nothing more. Are you sure? I'm extremely skeptical to that claim. The doctors of the USA are practically like zombies from corporate infilitration. This theory sounds almost like it's calculated to maximise antidepressant sales. That's one reason why I'm skeptical. Another is the simple fact that it sounds like a too quick generalization. I'm sure those with depression have some level of chemical inbalance. But everyone is also not getting what they want. So how can you say that chemical inbalance is the only factor, and not a tip of the iceberg, or a catalyst, that comes on top of their life being ****ed up? To be honest this theory reminds me of the days of Hippocrates, when human moods were caused by the correlation of the "four humors". Do you have any proof for it? I'm interested to read.
Daymare17 Posted April 1, 2005 Author Posted April 1, 2005 I see you haven't replied. Am I to interpret this as your allegations being unsubstantiated? I hope not. There must be some scientific proof on the Net.
Mokele Posted April 1, 2005 Posted April 1, 2005 But, do you have any other reasons for unhappiness, except for physiological pain, that arent simply manifestations of my general law (or rather, theory)? What about loss of a loved one? Surely there's no "intent" there, since that implies it's something you have control over. Season Affective Disorder, in which individuals feel down and depressed when not exposed to enough of the proper kind of light (I strongly suspect I have this myself). In that case, a purely biological but non-pain system can cause emotional unhapiness. Are you sure? I'm extremely skeptical to that claim. The doctors of the USA are practically like zombies from corporate infilitration. This theory sounds almost like it's calculated to maximise antidepressant sales. That's one reason why I'm skeptical. Another is the simple fact that it sounds like a too quick generalization. I'm sure those with depression have some level of chemical inbalance. But everyone is also not getting what they want. So how can you say that chemical inbalance is the only factor, and not a tip of the iceberg, or a catalyst, that comes on top of their life being ****ed up? Well, it's easy to be sure: All thought, happy or sad, is the product of chemicals. Depression is the product of a particular balance (or imbalance) of chemicals. Now, how that situation comes about can vary: maybe it's purely environmental, like your pet died, or maybe an environmental trigger causes a natural (hereditary) tendency towards imbalance to manifest, or maybe the individual is just born that way. As such, even if a trigger is required, what's *keeping* them depressed isn't the trigger, it's the continuing chemical imbalance. Mokele
Daymare17 Posted April 26, 2005 Author Posted April 26, 2005 Well' date=' it's easy to be sure: All thought, happy or sad, is the product of chemicals. Depression is the product of a particular balance (or imbalance) of chemicals. Now, how that situation comes about can vary: maybe it's purely environmental, like your pet died, or maybe an environmental trigger causes a natural (hereditary) tendency towards imbalance to manifest, or maybe the individual is just born that way. As such, even if a trigger is required, what's *keeping* them depressed isn't the trigger, it's the continuing chemical imbalance. Mokele[/quote'] Give me even one peer-reviewed scientific article proving this is the case! One! To know what kind of "corporate infiltration" I'm talking about, check out http://www.mindfreedom.org/mindfreedom/pfizerlies.shtml
Mokele Posted April 27, 2005 Posted April 27, 2005 Give me even one peer-reviewed scientific article proving this is the case! One! Open any Biology textbook and look up "Neurons". You'll read all about ion permeability of membrances, action potentials, and neurotransmitters. That's all there is to it, chemicals and cells (which are themselves just chemical reactions). Every external stimulus is converted into these chemical and electrical messages, and processed as such by the brain. To know what kind of "corporate infiltration" I'm talking about, check out http://www.mindfreedom.org/mindfreedom/pfizerlies.shtml No, I have better things to do than waste time reading BS conspiracy theories. Mokele
j_p Posted April 27, 2005 Posted April 27, 2005 After all' date=' clinical depression is unhapiness cause by chemicals, nothing more.Mokele[/quote'] I can not let this pass [well, I could, but I really shouldn't]. Depression is not unhappiness. When one is having a depressive episode, happiness causes one pain, because one realizes that the happiness is fleeting, insignificant on a universal scale, and probably based on some form of self-deception. A bit different from not liking your job. But to the original point: "expectations" would be more general that "intent".
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