swansont Posted November 14, 2015 Posted November 14, 2015 I've just one comment to make regarding all the above: “There is no such thing as philosophy-free science; there is only science whose philosophical baggage is taken on board without examination.—Daniel Dennett It's one thing to say that there is no such thing as philosophy-free science, but quite another to respond to the questions with all philosophy and no science. With the way science uses "law", does a law have unlimited dominion? Is it possible to actually violate a law of physics?
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