sigven Posted February 13, 2016 Posted February 13, 2016 Hey. I`m going to do an experiment to se if the magnetic field around a magnet changes when the temperature of the magnet changes. According to Currie´s law, M = C x ( B / T ), the magnetization of a material is inversely proportional to the temperature. If I have understood this right this means that f.ex. a iron nail in a magnetic field will be less magnetized if the temperature of the nail is higher. This equation does not speak of the temperature of the magnet which is making the magnetic field. My question is: can i use the same equation to determine how the magnetic field around a permanent magnet will change as a function of the magnet´s temperature?
Strange Posted February 13, 2016 Posted February 13, 2016 For a permanent magnet, I think you want the Curie-Weiss law: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curie%E2%80%93Weiss_law This only applies above the Curie point where the magnet loses its ferromagnetism.
John Cuthber Posted February 13, 2016 Posted February 13, 2016 Nether the nail, nor the magnet are paramagnetic, so Curie's law doesn't apply.
sigven Posted February 14, 2016 Author Posted February 14, 2016 Nether the nail, nor the magnet are paramagnetic, so Curie's law doesn't apply. Does Curie´s law apply only to paramegnetic materials? For a permanent magnet, I think you want the Curie-Weiss law: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curie%E2%80%93Weiss_law This only applies above the Curie point where the magnet loses its ferromagnetism. Is there no law that accounts for the change in magnetic field strength of a permanent magnet bellow the Currie point
Enthalpy Posted April 5, 2016 Posted April 5, 2016 The same material may be ferromagnetic or, above its Curie temperature, paramagnetic. I doubt a simple law works for ferromagnetic materials. Theories have been tried, but in docs for permanent magnets I've never seen one mentioned, only experimental curves, so simple theories resembling a thermodynamics distribution must fail.
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