What happens when light passes between two black holes?

[Lazarus]

Since the space is curved between the two black holes is the time that light takes to get by increased or does the equivalence concept mean that since the gravitational acceleration is zero there is no affect on the time the light takes?

[MigL]

If you make two depressions in a rubber sheet, the region between them will also be depressed compared to a part of the sheet at a large distance from the depressions.

Similarly, if light passes through an equivalent region of curved space-time, its 'signal' will 'fall' into that area, and then has to climb out of that area of curved space-time to reach a distant observer.

There is definitely gravitational acceleration.

[J.C.MacSwell]

I think there is a delay for the light in that sweet spot, equidistance, between identical (and somehow fixed in space?) black holes, but it finally comes out at the same frequency it went in. Similar to MigL's analogy in that there is a delay but momentum is eventually the same.

Edited February 20, 2016 by J.C.MacSwell

[swansont]

Remember that the important quantity is the potential, not the value of the acceleration. Even if there is no deflection from cancellation of the acceleration, there would be a delay.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shapiro_delay

[Lazarus]

Remember that the important quantity is the potential, not the value of the acceleration. Even if there is no deflection from cancellation of the acceleration, there would be a delay.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shapiro_delay

 

I understand. It concerns the energy to escape from the effect of both black holes. Is that demonstration of the direction of the light being independent of the effect of mass?

[swansont]

I understand. It concerns the energy to escape from the effect of both black holes. Is that demonstration of the direction of the light being independent of the effect of mass?

Since mass will deflect light, I have to say no.

[Lazarus]

Since mass will deflect light, I have to say no.

Sorry, I worded that poorly. What I was trying to ask is would a ray of light perpendicular to that ray receive the same amount of deflection at the same position?

[swansont]

Sorry, I worded that poorly. What I was trying to ask is would a ray of light perpendicular to that ray receive the same amount of deflection at the same position?

I doubt it. The direction of travel should matter. It does for the Shapiro delay.