Obnoxious Posted April 21, 2005 Posted April 21, 2005 Okay, can someone help me with this little puppy? [math]\lim_{x\to0}(\frac{1}{sin x}-\frac{1}{x})[/math]
Dapthar Posted April 21, 2005 Posted April 21, 2005 Okay' date=' can someone help me with this little puppy?[math']\lim_{x\to0}(\frac{1}{sin x}-\frac{1}{x})[/math] Intuitively, as [math]x\to0[/math], [math]sin x \approx x[/math], therefore, the limit should be [math] 0 [/math]. At the moment, I'll just give you a hint. If you combine the two fractions, you get [math]\lim_{x\to0}{\frac{x-sin x}{x sin x}}[/math]. This is an indeterminate form (namely [math]\frac{0}{0}[/math]), so you can apply L'Hopital's rule. You'll need to apply it twice, but you'll end up getting that the limit is [math] 0 [/math]. If you haven't learned L'Hopital's rule yet, mention so in a post, and I'll try to compute the limit without using it.
Obnoxious Posted April 22, 2005 Author Posted April 22, 2005 I don't wanna post all my steps, but is the answer 0? Please tell me it's 0, as that is what I put on my test.
Dapthar Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 I don't wanna post all my steps, but is the answer 0? Yup.
Dave Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 Just a quick hint: To get [math]\sin(x)[/math] instead of [math]sin(x)[/math], use \sin - looks a lot nicer
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