Guest Geist Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 Is it possible for two objects to occupy the same space and consist of the same matter at the same time? I am a philosophy student and while doing research for this I realised how far I could go before I become quite limited, what do science minded people think of this and whatever your answer why do you think so? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
darth tater Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 If it was composed of the same matter and in the same place, how could it be 2 separate objects? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Geist Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 I really dont know, its an exam question as well. I am confused as I assume that their is some kind of trick to the question and I can hardly reply simply as you did although it's my and many others I reckon instinct to do so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 For Fermions, no. For Bosons, yes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
5614 Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 I kinda know why you said that, but not entirely why. Fermions no, obviously, pauli exclusion principle. Bosons obviously do not apply to that exclusion, but still to have the same co-ordinates in space and time AND be the same matter AND still be classified as seperate objects, how so? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 I kinda know why you said that' date=' but not entirely why. Fermions no, obviously, pauli exclusion principle. Bosons obviously do not apply to that exclusion, but still to have the same co-ordinates in space and time AND be the same matter AND still be classified as seperate objects, how so?[/quote'] Because matter behaves as waves some of the time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
5614 Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 Because matter behaves as waves some of the time. Keep going.... example or something? Are you saying that the object is both matter and a wave (QM wave particle duality) and this counts as two objects [1-wave, 2-particle]? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 Keep going.... example or something? Are you saying that the object is both matter and a wave (QM wave particle duality) and this counts as two objects [1-wave' date= 2-particle]? If the object can be treated as a wave, then you can have two or more objects overlap, since all you are doing is adding the two waves together. In Bose-Einstein condensation you can't pick the individual particles apart anymore. It's basically one superparticle with a large deBroglie wavelength. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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