Sarahisme Posted May 2, 2005 Posted May 2, 2005 Can i just check if i have done this question right? Question:............ "Suppose that a linear transformation T is defined by a 4×5 matrix. Can T to be one to one? Can T be onto? Give reasons for your answers." This is my answer:............. Let the 4x5 matrix that defines transformation T be: A = [# * * * *] [* # * * *] [* * # * *] [* * * # *] #'s indeicate some possible pivot positions for the transformation T to be one to one, the columns oof matrix A have to be lineraly independent (by a particular therom). That is T is one to one iff Ax=0 has only the trvial solution. However, because there will always be at least one free variable in the reduced forms of A, therefore the columns of A are not linearly independent. Thus the transformation T can not be one-to-one. The transformation T is onto (map R^n -> R^m) iff the columns of A span R^m (By a Theorem). Also by another Theorem, the columns of A span R^m iff A has a pivot position in every row. So because A is a 4x5 matrix, it is defintely possible for A to have a pivot position in every row. Thus T can be onto so long as there is a pivot position in each row when the matrix has been reduced. phew! how'd i go? Cheers Sarah
matt grime Posted May 5, 2005 Posted May 5, 2005 then there was no need to do "for the transformation T to be one to one, the columns oof matrix A have to be lineraly independent (by a particular therom). That is T is one to one iff Ax=0 has only the trvial solution. However, because there will always be at least one free variable in the reduced forms of A, therefore the columns of A are not linearly independent. Thus the transformation T can not be one-to-one."
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