A speculative question regarding the relation of time and physical laws

[casualPhilosoph]

If we look at physical laws, not as rules how a 3/n dimensional universe develops from moment to moment, but instead see them as rules that govern the structure of a 4/n+1 object, along paths in that object we call timelines. Then the problem of induction, the question why the universe obeys laws, becomes a question of why is the object is structured the way it is.

My thought was: Maybe the question is asked wrongly? If the object is not really cleanly structured, but the act of creating a timeline, a lets call it "consistency" function works like a filter that excludes anything that function can not map as imperceivable and such de facto non existant, then the question of why pysical laws exist, would be similar to the antropomorphic principle in a multiverse theory, the universe would behave ordered because anything experiencing time could not perceive otherwise.

Besides probably beeing consistent with the strange property of quantum mechanics of letting multiple state coexist until something filters them(collapse of the wave function) is there any prediction this idea(of laws as a consistency function) could make, or any math one could check if this idea has any validity or use? Or is this nothing more then logic that only has any validity within the construct of our language, but does not map to the realm of physics?

[casualPhilosoph]

Hi I recently found this http://blog.stephenwolfram.com/2015/12/what-is-spacetime-really/ and I think my question might correspond to an alternate viewpoint on what time is in these kinds of network, as having a "updating thread" is a strangely artificial notion from my viewpoint.

Though I still do not know how I would formulize my viewpoint correctly in such a model.